Can I simply conclude that a noun must be missing in which/that/who or what clauses, even though the missing noun might be an object behind an infinitive verb, gerund verb or a preposition?
I wrote these following sentences, but I am not sure if they are grammatical or not.
This is not the show that the students want to see.
the infinitive to see here acts as an object of the verb want, but see is a transitive verb , therefore it must be followed by an object, and that represent the missing object, which makes the sentence correct? Right?
This is strategy which people start adopting.
Gerund verb adopting here acts as an object of the verb start, but adopting is a transitive verb , therefore it must be followed by a object ,and which represents the missing object, am I correct?
He is the man whom we have grown sick of.
He is the man whom we have grown sick of talking about.
A noun must always follow a preposition, so even though I placed one preposition behind the PP phrase of talking in the second example , the rule will still apply, which makes the sentence correct?
The students are trying to understand the rules that the teacher judged acceptable.
Judged is a kind of verb that should be followed by an object and a complement,and in the clause we only see the complement instead of the object , and that represents the missing object,which makes the sentence correct, am I right?