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Are you completely sure anything you have done is of your own free will?

Are you completely sure anything you have done has been of your own free will?

Might I trouble you to tell me whether both of them is grammatical or not?

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    I think the second one is better although some people may argue that the first one can be correct as well. – apadana Feb 23 '19 at 0:33
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My first reaction is that both are grammatical, but the first is semantically wrong. Something that has been done is no longer extant, so the present tense can't be applied.

The second is valid in all senses, but so is

Are you completely sure anything you have done was of your own free will?

| improve this answer | |
  • Thank you so much. If it is 'something that someone has been doing', Is it still be extant? - In this case, can the present tense be applied? "Are you completely sure anything you have been doing is of your own free will"? – JYJ Feb 23 '19 at 1:17
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    Yes, that works. – SamBC Feb 23 '19 at 1:20

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