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I'm writing an essay for school; and as a non-native English speaker I'd like to know which sentence is grammatically correct or which feels "more right", so to speak.

"a plausible reason for why the firm finds itself in this situation is not being able to adapt to the recent changes in consumer behavior"

or

"a plausible reason for why the firm finds itself in this situation is for not being able to adapt to the recent changes in consumer behavior"

I'm personally inclined to choose the first one, but I'm not sure.

closed as off-topic by Jason Bassford, SamBC, Lamplighter, shin, Lambie Mar 17 at 21:31

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  • "Questions asking for someone to find and correct errors or improve the phrasing are considered requests for proofreading and are off-topic. Please edit your question to focus on something in particular that you are unsure about; if that's not possible, see websites for proofreading instead." – Jason Bassford, SamBC, Lamplighter, shin
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  • You mean "a plausible reason why the company finds itself unable to adapt to the recent changes in consumer behavior"? I removed 'for' out of 'reason for why', 'is/is for' ('finds' is already taking a verb place) and changed 'not being able to' to 'unable to'. – Gwangmu Lee Mar 12 at 1:13
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I would get rid of both fors and phrase the second half differently:

A plausible reason why the firm finds itself in this situation is its inability to adapt to the recent changes in consumer behavior.

I think inability is a better and simpler noun than not being able. In any case, the second for is not grammatical.

  • Thank you! I didn't say inability because I used this term later on and I didn't want to repeat myself, but looking back on it now, it doesn't seem like using this term twice will affect the essay in any negative way. – Cracker Gamer Mar 12 at 1:35

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