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Today I had to say such a sentence:

What will we be glad for all the day?

And I was feeling awkward, because maybe it should have been:

What will we be glad all the day for?

Are they the same or one of them is incorrect?

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The first sentence, "What will we be glad for all the day?" depicts that you are being glad for the day.

The second sentence, "What will we be glad all the day for?" shows that there is something you want to be glad for, throughout the day.

So, yes, they both are different. In your context, the second one is correct.

  • But then the first sentence is wrong because the word "what" doesn't have sense to be there. If we say "What will we be glad for all the day" then for "what" we should add one mor "for" like "What will we be glad for all the day for". Because, as I see, there should be a couple like "because of what", "with what", "for what" and so on but if we give our "for" to the "all the day' then the "what" is left with no prepositional friend, am I right?:) – Michael Azarenko Mar 28 at 7:22
  • To use the "What will we be glad for all the day?", you need to put a comma after For, as in "What will we be glad for, all the day?" – Bella Swan Mar 28 at 7:42
  • But shouldn't there be a diffeerent "for" before the period of time "all the day" like "for all the day"? – Michael Azarenko Mar 28 at 7:44
  • "What will we be glad for, for all the day?" this would be correct in that context then, even though its not necessary. "All the day" already means for all of the day – Bella Swan Mar 28 at 7:51
  • Yes but the sentence "What will we be glad for all the day?" without the comma sounds weird for me. The "what" isn't connected with anything because its preposition "for" serves for "all the day". Or it's completely logical? – Michael Azarenko Mar 28 at 7:53

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