I'm here again with misunderstanding of some grammar rules. So there is sentence where it's said " 4 days has never felt so long". why a song writer used "has" instead of "have", when I asked question bout "he do" vs "he does" I got what's the point of it, but here, I can't understand. There is no rhyme, there is nothing that can be cause of using "has" instead of "have"
Here is the lyrics: Baby, I don't feel so good Six words you never understood I'll never let you go Five words you'll never say (aw) I laugh alone like nothing's wrong Four days has never felt so long If three's a crowd and two was us One slipped away