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We have two sets of sentences:

1.a) I have been living here for 3 months.

1.b) I have lived here for 3 months.

and

2.a) I have been building the house for 3 months.

2.b) I have built the house for 3 months.

In the first set, do the first and second sentences mean the same?
What about the second set? Do the sentences mean the same? If not, what are the difference between them?

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    2b -“built” is the past tense of “build” – Mixolydian Apr 5 at 1:08
  • "built" is also the past participle - which I think is what I meant to say (if the sentence originally had "have build"). – Mixolydian Apr 5 at 18:53
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1.a) I have been living here for 3 months.

1.b) I have lived here for 3 months.

I think these two sentences pretty much have the same meaning. They both tell the reader that the writer started living "here" three months ago and still does.

2.a) I have been building the house for 3 months.

2.b) I have built the house for 3 months.

2a sounds ok. It tells the reader that the writer has spent the last three months working on building the house. It probably isn't complete - if it were, the writer would probably use the simple past tense ("I built the house in [or over] 3 months") or the past progressive ("I spent 3 months building the house").

2b sounds unnatural. built (past participle or past tense) is usually reserved for completed acts of building. "I have built houses for 3 months" (with houses, plural) seems more natural to me - you might say this if you have worked as a carpenter and have finished building many houses over a period of 3 months. But if you want to describe the act of building a single house, "have built...for" does not sound right. It sounds like you have completed building a house repeatedly over the course of three months, which makes no sense.

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"Have been" is used for present perfect continuous. It depicts that the action started before and is still happening.

"Have" alone is used for present perfect. It shows that the action has been completed/finished recently.

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