0

I was doing an exercise and I had to join two sentences using an infinitive.


The pair of sentences was--

I have no aptitude for business. I must speak it out frankly.

The answer was--

To speak out frankly, I have no aptitude for business.

My doubt is--

In the above sentence is to speak same as speaking or does it mean something else?

migrated from english.stackexchange.com Apr 14 at 15:13

This question came from our site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts.

  • No native speaker would use "speak out" in either of those sentences. – DJClayworth Apr 14 at 15:15
  • Have you looked up, or asked your teacher, what an infinitive is? – DJClayworth Apr 14 at 15:16
  • 1: I have no aptitude for business. I am speaking frankly - not particularly idiomatic as two sentences. 2: Frankly [speaking], I have no aptitude for business - perfectly natural (we wouldn't usually bother including speaking at all, but it could come before or after the adverb). 3: To be frank, I have no... - again, perfectly natural. 4: To speak frankly,... - a bit stilted / circumlocutious. – FumbleFingers Apr 14 at 15:23
  • @Fumblefingers The sentence is from wren and martin. – Kshitij Singh Apr 15 at 12:47

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.