In the movie "Frame", 1947, Glen Ford, in one dialog there is:

"I shouldn't have let you do it."

Does "I shouldn't have let you do it." grammatically means:

A) shouldn't have + past participle or

B) shouldn't + present perfect?

I ask it because always after modal verbs go infinitive of verb without "to".

Does the verb "have" in that sentence infinitive without "to" of verbs "have", or it is "have" of present perfect "have let".


Have isn't a modal verb, so have gone, for example, always means present perfect.

If you want to follow have with the plain form of a verb, to must be used.

I have to go (never I have go.

Have can be inverted in questions like do or be or modals, but it's still not a modal.

Are you going to the park?

Do you want to go to the park?

Have you gone to the park?

Should you go to the park?

and of course [modal] + have works like this:

Should you have gone to the park?

You still need to in questions if you are using have to X in the sense of a question. As an AmE speaker, this seems to have a very BrE flavor to it.

Have you to leave so soon?

Have to X can also be expressed in a perfect aspect, as a question, and with a modal on its own. That's done this way.

Should John have had you to go to the park earlier?

  • LawrenceC look my question, I have just edited. Concretely, your answer is A) or B)
    – b2ok
    Apr 17 '19 at 20:38

The correct answer is A because for Third Person is also "have", not "has":
"She shouldn't have let you do it."
"He shouldn't have let you do it."
This is not correct:
She shouldn't has let you do it.
He shouldn't has let you do it.

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