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  1. Among people, there is understanding.

  2. There is understanding among them.

Are they two correct sentences? Is there any difference in meaning?


3.Whether there is understanding among them would require a further prove

Here, is "among them" an adjectival prepositional phrase modifying the word understanding (gerun acting as noun) or an adverbial prepositional phrase modifying IS (linking verb)?

Can prepositional phrase modify linking verb like "is, feel etc."?

  • First of all, the second sentence doesn't specify people. That alone is a big difference. – Jason Bassford Apr 22 at 7:50
  • I would argue that neither of these is really a complete sentence. The first feels awkward as it stands, and the plural is almost certainly not needed. – Mike Brockington Apr 22 at 9:04
  • What are you actually trying to say with that sentence? I have some ideas of better words, but I am not sure what you actually need. – virolino Apr 22 at 9:23

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