1. It was wise of you to buy the secondhand product. 1-2. You were wise to buy the secondhand product.
  2. It was wise for you to buy the secondhand product. 2-2. For you to buy the second product was wise.

Can we use both expressions? What is the difference between them?

1 can be changed into #1-2.

2 can be changed into #2-2. Isn't that right? Because of 'of' and 'for', what difference do we have?


All four of the suggested sentences have pretty much the same meaning. Any of them can be used. Sentences 2 and 2-2, both of which use "for" rather than "of", are lesson common in form, and perhaps might sound a bit awkward, especially 2-2. But I don't think that any of hem are actually ungrammatical.

  • Notice that the secondhand product is not idiomatic unless you have already been talking about several products, one of which is secondhand. In any other context a secondhand product would be expected . – Colin Fine Nov 27 '19 at 15:49

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