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  1. It was wise of you to buy the secondhand product. 1-2. You were wise to buy the secondhand product.
  2. It was wise for you to buy the secondhand product. 2-2. For you to buy the second product was wise.

Can we use both expressions? What is the difference between them?

1 can be changed into #1-2.

2 can be changed into #2-2. Isn't that right? Because of 'of' and 'for', what difference do we have?

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All four of the suggested sentences have pretty much the same meaning. Any of them can be used. Sentences 2 and 2-2, both of which use "for" rather than "of", are lesson common in form, and perhaps might sound a bit awkward, especially 2-2. But I don't think that any of hem are actually ungrammatical.

  • Notice that the secondhand product is not idiomatic unless you have already been talking about several products, one of which is secondhand. In any other context a secondhand product would be expected . – Colin Fine Nov 27 '19 at 15:49

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