I was engaged in some informal but I hope grammatical conversation with a friend who is less fluent in English than me (so I didn't want to confuse them!). It went:
- So why are you so upset?
- You really want to know?
- Well, you know how I was telling you how I sold my car?
- I was excited about driving up to Manchester...
- But, I later realized, have no car.
Is "But, I later realized, have no car" grammatical?
I think maybe, and with the following reason.
"But, I later realized, have no car"? sounds better than "But I later realized, have no car". I think the former sounds better due to the grammar, and one answer for why that is, is that it's grammatical (rather than, say, more rhetorical or I'm not interested in their reply).
I am concerned with the elided "I" in what would be the independent clause "have no car", and so I'm guessing it may be grammatical because in the latter the phrase "I later realized" is parenthesized (so that the conditional conjunction 'but' belongs to the independent clause "[I] have no car"), if that's not a misunderstanding.
Or perhaps it's because the conjunction 'but' in the former, used, example need not be read as set off with a comma.
The question seems a difficult one, as wikipedia says:
the dropping of pronouns is generally restricted to very informal speech and certain fixed expressions, and the rules for their use are complex and vary among dialects and register
I would be asking for BrSE, at least foremostly.