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I know it may not be very common, but I need to use it in its expanded form (i.e., do not and does not) for a formatting issue.

For example:

X does not see any logic in your reasoning.

X: is someone's name.

I'm aware that such cases are used to add stress and focus on the negation part like:

He is not going to change his mind as far as I can tell.

So, would it be correct to use it in that form (does not) and still be considered 'correct English'?

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    The first example would sound more natural (to my American ear) if "reason" were changed to "reasoning".
    – Jasper
    May 18, 2019 at 5:26
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    The second example would be more idiomatic if "believe" were changed to "can tell".
    – Jasper
    May 18, 2019 at 5:27
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    It's all correct English. The full version is used in formal writing, while contractions are more common in informal writing. May 18, 2019 at 8:34
  • @Jasper _ Yes, I agree. They rather sound more natural with your suggestions. Thank you. May 18, 2019 at 19:04
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    I changed the examples to be more idiomatic. This focuses the examples on the issue you asked about. If you would prefer to have the examples as you originally wrote them, feel free to revert the changes.
    – Jasper
    May 18, 2019 at 20:18

1 Answer 1

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Both sentences are correct and valid English. Use of contractions is sometimes taught to show informality, and the expanded form may be preferred in formal contexts, but this will vary depending on geography, circumstance, and period in time.

Use of "does not" does not add any stress or focus to the negation when compared to "doesn't", however it permits emphasis to be placed on the word "not", whether in speech or writing, for example, "He does not have permission," would have a stronger emphasis on the negation than "He doesn't have permission."

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    Thank you for pointing out my misunderstanding of the expansion concept and correcting it, besides the actual answer. May 22, 2019 at 21:02

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