1

What is the difference between the following two sentences regarding the position of never?

  1. There never has arisen a great man who has not been misunderstood.

  2. There has never arisen a great man who has not been misunderstood.

Is there any rule regarding the position of the adverb never?

0

Sentence 2 is the "normal" way to say it.

Sentence 1 is more "artistic", and it adds an additional stress on "never".

-1

Only the second sentence is grammatically correct:

The Position of the Adverb in a Sentence

"An adverb of frequency goes before a main verb (except with To Be).

When we use an auxiliary verb (have, will, must, might, could, would, can, etc.), the adverb is placed between the auxiliary and the main verb. This is also true for to be."

 

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