0

Why is it so that it is more correct to say

In India, Independence Day is not on August 14th.

instead of

India's Independence Day is not on August 14th.

?

Is it because the usage of possessive apostrophe with country names is more suitable for some physical objects (India's capital, India's forests, India's population, etc.) rather than some concepts (customs, events, time periods, etc.) ?

  • Where did you get the impression that it is incorrect to use the possessive in this case? One might prefer not to say "Egypt's Christmas is not on the 25th December" because Christmas does not belong exclusively to Egypt, However India's Independence day definitely belongs to India. – JavaLatte May 19 at 4:31
  • @JavaLatte - My son's English teacher made that correction in his test paper, except it was not India and Independence day, but Canada and Father's day. – brilliant May 19 at 4:34
  • That explains it. Father's day doesn't belong exclusively to Canada. Using the possessive isn't wrong, but the "In Canada" is preferable. Compare these two NGRAM graphs: books.google.com/ngrams/… books.google.com/ngrams/… – JavaLatte May 19 at 4:42
  • 1
    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is based on a misunderstanding – JavaLatte May 19 at 4:44
  • @JavaLatte - Do you have to? – brilliant May 19 at 4:52

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.