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I have right to know that information. But they violated my right to that information.

When someone does not satisfy someone's right, could we say they violate her right? Is that verb idiomatic in such context?

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That is a common usage. For example:

Gatti, as far as I'm concerned, has violated my right not to know, while Ferrante protected it.

(Deborah Orr, writing in the Guardian)

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