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In my grammar book, I saw this:

  1. He has been looking everywhere for you, and he still is.

Why does 'is' stand after an adverb?
I thought that there was a rule that we have to put adverbs after to be. And one more time, why "is"? Why not like this:

  1. He has been looking for you, and he has still.
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  • Generally speaking, adverbs don't come after to be. Nouns or adjectives do. (Although there could be an adverb that modifies a subsequent adjective.) – Jason Bassford Jun 6 '19 at 11:51
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'Has been looking for' is about an action which continued up to the current moment (it could have stopped or not by the moment of speaking). The final 'is' represents 'is looking for you' (still) in a short manner - that action is (still) going on. You can't say 'is still' since that would mean another thing: 'he doesn't move', but you can put 'still' between the subject and the main verb (there's just one verb 'is' after 'he'). 'Has still' is incorrect here.

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  • You mean that it is right to put 'to be' after 'still'.He still is doing it. I don't know why , but it sounds too much unnatural for me.I am used to saying,"He is still writing his papers". Accordingly many books of mine said the same."Mary is still doing her homework". – Vmir Jun 6 '19 at 6:25
  • From Cambridge Dictionary: We usually put still in the normal mid position for adverbs (between the subject and the main verb, or after the modal verb or first auxiliary verb, or after be as a main verb): _She still goes to French classes every week. (between subject and main verb) In our case there's just one verb, so it can be considered the main one. – Alex_ander Jun 6 '19 at 8:06

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