1
  1. The cafe has closed
  2. The cafe has been closed

Two of the sentences have same meaning?

  • You would more frequently see usage 2 with a time qualifier: "The cafe has been closed since 5 PM," or "The cafe has been closed all weekend." – Canadian Yankee Jun 14 at 13:30
3

While they both can been the same thing, there can be differences in both in grammar and interpretation.

The cafe has closed.

  • Grammar: This is a simple statement of fact about the current state of the cafe.
  • Interpretation: Generally, it would be interpreted as meaning that the cafe has closed for the day.

The cafe has been closed.

  • Grammar: Most often, this would represent the fact that the cafe has been closed by somebody. As opposed to the other sentence, it's not just a simple description but an indication of an action on somebody's part.

    It could also be considered not as an indication of action, but as way of expressing that it was closed at some point in the past (generally, for an extended period of time) and may or may not have reopened since.

  • Interpretation: In addition to the interpretations possible from the grammar, it could also be taken to mean that the cafe has gone out of business.


Context is important in each of these sentences. While they could mean the same thing, they don't have to—and different interpretations are possible.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.