I've always thought like that 'have' between a modal and a past participle is nothing but a grammatical method of indicating the past tense of modal. But recently I saw a video saying that in the example sentence below, 'have submitted' was used not only to show the past of modal verb, but also to imply some vibes somewhat similar to the several usages of 'present perfect form' give off. I mean, such as that the act of submitting has been 'finished' or anything... Is it true?
What happened? I thought you would've submitted it by now.