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Today I read a grammar rule regarding usage

In the following sentence

He informed me that he had gone to one of the minister's residences and stayed there all night

Rule was in such constructions the bold part is wrong and it should be

.........gone to the residence of one of the ministers.....

That is fine, but if my intent is to say that he had gone to one of the residences of the minister then I think the above construction is grammatical

A similar usage is present in the editorial that I am reading

The lenders have to shoulder a fair share of the blame as the delay in initiating the insolvency process has drastically eroded some of the airline’s key assets, including customer goodwill, its aircraft fleet, routes and landing slots and even its experienced flight crew.

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    Are you asking if using the possessive apostrophe is grammatical? Or just when used as the object of a verb? Perhaps you should post the rule. Jun 20, 2019 at 17:43
  • As you point out, the two versions mean different things. Both appear to be grammatically correct. Why don't you say what you explain further on in your question? "He informed me that he had gone to one of the residences of the minister and stayed there all night" Jun 20, 2019 at 17:46
  • The rule is already posted and my question is not about apostrophe
    – user93387
    Jun 20, 2019 at 18:36

1 Answer 1

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In speech, "One of the ministers residences" is ambiguous, with three possible renderings: 1) "One of the residences of the minister"; 2) "The residences of one of the ministers" 3) "One out of all the residences of all the ministers"

In writing, 1) is spelt "One of the minister's residences", 3) is spelt "One of the ministers' residences", and it is not clear to me how to spell no 2) - I presume it's the same as 1).

There is nothing wrong with the bold part, except that it is potentially ambiguous.

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