There has got to be the establishment of a universal auxiliary language.
Does the verb got add more to the context or is it there just for emphasis? Is it even grammatical?
Using Google-Ngrams I found a few similar versions as follow: there has * to be. For example;
- For many from the North, however, it has seemed difficult and there has seemed to be a problem.
- There has come to be a convolution between this become enmeshed concept of marriage as it exists in the sacred and how it exists in the secular.
- Most of the time since I have been here, there has appeared to be considerable feeling in the minds of a few.
- There has had to be some negotiation, obviously, but I think we provided what our soldiers need and what our country needs.
In general, I wanna know if 'have/has'+past-participle+'to be' is grammatical.