There has got to be the establishment of a universal auxiliary language.

Does the verb got add more to the context or is it there just for emphasis? Is it even grammatical?

Using Google-Ngrams I found a few similar versions as follow: there has * to be. For example;

  1. For many from the North, however, it has seemed difficult and there has seemed to be a problem.
  2. There has come to be a convolution between this become enmeshed concept of marriage as it exists in the sacred and how it exists in the secular.
  3. Most of the time since I have been here, there has appeared to be considerable feeling in the minds of a few.
  4. There has had to be some negotiation, obviously, but I think we provided what our soldiers need and what our country needs.

In general, I wanna know if 'have/has'+past-participle+'to be' is grammatical.


That "got" is just omissible.

See HAVE | meaning in the Cambridge English Dictionary:


modal verb

have (got) to do sth

​And see Have got to and have to - English Grammar Today - Cambridge Dictionary:

Have got to and have to mean the same. Have got to is more informal. We use have (got) to here to refer to both verbs.

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.