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There has got to be the establishment of a universal auxiliary language.

Does the verb got add more to the context or is it there just for emphasis? Is it even grammatical?

Using Google-Ngrams I found a few similar versions as follow: there has * to be. For example;

  1. For many from the North, however, it has seemed difficult and there has seemed to be a problem.
  2. There has come to be a convolution between this become enmeshed concept of marriage as it exists in the sacred and how it exists in the secular.
  3. Most of the time since I have been here, there has appeared to be considerable feeling in the minds of a few.
  4. There has had to be some negotiation, obviously, but I think we provided what our soldiers need and what our country needs.

In general, I wanna know if 'have/has'+past-participle+'to be' is grammatical.

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That "got" is just omissible.

See HAVE | meaning in the Cambridge English Dictionary:

have

modal verb

have (got) to do sth

​And see Have got to and have to - English Grammar Today - Cambridge Dictionary:

Have got to and have to mean the same. Have got to is more informal. We use have (got) to here to refer to both verbs.

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