0

What is the difference between "I am not agree" and "I do not agree"?

  1. Question: "I am not agree with your opinion."

    Explanation: The grammar is not okay because "agree" is a verb.

    We can use the adjective "agreed" to "I am not agreed with your opinion." (Correct or not? If not, why not?)

  2. Question: "I do not agree with your opinion."

    Explanation: We use "do" in question and negative sentences.

    So, the "negative" sentence needs to add "do". (Correct or not? If not, why not?)

REFERENCE

  • where do you have that "agreed" is an adjective? That just seems like a past-tense verb to me. – katatahito Jul 3 '19 at 7:42
  • @katatahito that is why I need someone to help me Ref – willie Jul 3 '19 at 7:50
  • 4
    You can't say I am not agreed. Agreed is the past tense of the verb agree. Instead, you would say I am not in agreement. I'm not entirely sure where that leaves your question, however. – Jason Bassford Jul 3 '19 at 9:10
  • @JasonBassford thanks for your command it is from URL – willie Jul 3 '19 at 9:40
  • @willie Following that link, it's talking about agreeable, which is something quite different. (But I will note that the person there reached the same conclusion I did in my initial comment.) – Jason Bassford Jul 3 '19 at 9:43
1

As you say, I am not agree is ungrammatical, because am cannot be followed by a verb in the base (or infinitive form).

I am agreed is grammatical, but fails semantically.

Grammatically it could be the past participle of the verb agree, in which case I am agreed could be a passive: but people can't be the object of agreement, so it doesn't make sense. With a different subject, this is fine: for example, The sale is agreed.

Alternatively, agreed can be an adjective. But this is only used of a group where all the members are in agreement with each other about something: it is not normally used of an individual who is in agreement with somebody else. So we are agreed is fine, but I am agreed is odd.

As simple verbs, I agree and I do not agree_ are grammatical and normal. As you say, nearly all verbs require the helper do to form the negative.

| improve this answer | |
  • If "I am agreed" is passive, then the active counterpart should be "They agreed me". Is that grammatical? The passive should be, although odd, "I am agreed with". – user178049 Jul 3 '19 at 11:50
  • Yes, @user178049, I think it is grammatical, but nonsense. "The sale was agreed" is certainly grammatical, so it's hard to see why "I am agreed" should not be. – Colin Fine Jul 3 '19 at 12:23
  • Ok, I see; according to Cambridge Dictionary, "agree + something" is common in the UK. I'm not used to BrE. – user178049 Jul 3 '19 at 12:27
  • Ah. I wasn't aware that agree isn't used that way elsewhere. – Colin Fine Jul 3 '19 at 12:30

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.