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Which one is correct?

I had wet.
I had got wet.
I have wet.
I have got wet.

  • 1
    All of them are grammatical! Some of them almost certainly don't mean what you intended. But you didn't explain what you intended, so if you can add some more detail we can help you more! – TypeIA Jul 13 at 18:45
  • @TypeIA - I'm having trouble seeing the first and third as grammatical, although they could certainly be grammatical in the context of a longer expression or phrase. – J.R. Jul 13 at 18:53
  • @J.R. "To wet" is a verb, and I suppose we could debate whether a direct object is strictly required grammatically, but I'd argue it can be implied with context. The most likely implication I can think of is to wet the bed or to wet one's pants but as a parent of two young children I might be biased... – TypeIA Jul 13 at 19:52
  • @TypeIA - Yeah, that's what I was thinking; I think those need an object: I had wet my fingers, I had wet the bed, I had wet the whetstone, etc. Oxford expects an object, too. – J.R. Jul 13 at 22:04

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