I study English 3-4 days.

The irregular form of the verb will use affirmative form in the past tense.

And if there is no such verb?

Let the words Open and Close

And if I understood correctly, it means that if there is no irregular verb form and the word ends with the vowel e, then I must add d to the end of the word, and if the word ends with a consonant, then ed.

Do I think correctly?



  • Yes. But this mute <e> would be deleted in the gerund-participle form "closing". Note also that, usually, it's a matter of pronunciation rather than spelling. "Stomach" takes /s/ in the plural because the final consonant is /k/. "Coach" takes /ɪz/ because the final consonant is /tʃ/. – user178049 Aug 1 '19 at 4:21
  • I understand you, thank you ... – Air Aug 1 '19 at 4:29
  • This is not a rule that applies to every verb—and certainly not every irregular verb. (Neither open nor close is an irregular verb.) For instance, the past tense of bury (a regular verb) is buried, not buryd. And the past tense of beat (an irregular verb) is beat. – Jason Bassford Aug 1 '19 at 4:38
  • Thank you, Jason Bassford, I understand you – Air Aug 1 '19 at 4:54

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