So in this sentence "He couldn’t hear her voice above the noise.", does "above the noise" describe "her voice"? if so, how come "he couldn't hear her voice".
Shouldn't he be able to hear the voice since voice is louder than noise, or "above the noise" describe something else?
Let me elaborate a bit, so these are two examples from dictionary
- "he seldom spoke above a whisper"
- "the doorbell went unheard above the din"
And quite obviously, in first sentence, the volume of "he spoke" is higher than of "whisper"; in second sentence, the volume of "din" is higher than of "doorbell".
but how does this make sense grammatically?
can the "above" be a bi-directional preposition?