0

chapter 6 of Bertsekas et. al's book "Introduction to Probability, 2nd Edition" says

Generalizing from the case of a finite number of random variables, the independence of an infinite sequence of random variables Xi is defined by the requirement that the random variables $X_1, ..., X_{n}$ be independent for any finite n. Intuitively, knowing the values of any finite subset of the random variables does not provide any new probabilistic information on the remaining random variables, and the conditional distribution of the latter is the same as the unconditional one.

What the latter is referring to? Is that "the remaining random variables"?

  • @Lambie Thanks a lot! Please move your comments to answer, I'll accept it. – fu DL Aug 9 at 14:01
1

Yes, always the last one mentioned. Compare: former and latter. The length of the sentence is irrelevant.

The former is the earlier item and the latter is the last item in the sentence.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.