I know we often use the English article "the" before nouns. But I have noticed this is not always true.
According to the Oxford dictionary, "Same" is used as Adjective, Pronoun, and Adverb.
Oxford Dictionary Link: https://www.lexico.com/en/definition/same
As Adjective: All examples in the Oxford dictionary use "the" before nouns when "same" is used as an adjective. A few examples from the dictionary are below.
Examples:
1. She was saying the same thing over and over.
2. I'm the same age as you are.
3. He's worked at the same place for quite a few years.
4. They drank out of the same glass.
Question 1: So, can I say this is universally true? Whenever "same" is used as an adjective, "the" is placed before it.
As Pronoun and Adverb: When it is used as a pronoun or adverb, in some examples "the" is placed before it but in some, not.
A few examples from the dictionary are below when used as a pronoun.
Examples:
1. I'll resign and encourage everyone else to do the same.
2. there are several brands and they're not all the same.
3. All age groups are welcome to participate and sponsorship of same would be very welcome.
4. It turns out that the head of same is a prominent member of the Australian Kurdish community.
A few examples from the dictionary are below when used as an Adverb.
Examples:
1. treating women the same as men
2. he gave me five dollars, same as usual.
Question 2: As from the above examples, when "same" is used as a pronoun or adverb, in some cases, "the" is placed and in some, not. Can someone explain to me this?
I have also visited this StackExchange link, but it does not answer my question Does the adjective 'same' ALWAYS have the definite article 'the'?
