Any difference between the following two sentences:
"I have the opportunity to hold an important conference."
"I have had the opportunity to hold an important conference."
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1In the first the conference is to come. In the second, it is in the past.– KCHCommented Apr 29, 2014 at 13:30
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Is it likely in the second that the conference is to come? Maybe I got the opportunity two days ago and the conference was going to take place a month later. @KCH– Kinzle BCommented Apr 29, 2014 at 13:33
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Possibly. But perhaps "I have been given the opportunity..." would make it less ambiguous.– KCHCommented Apr 29, 2014 at 13:35
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1 Answer
The first sentence is in the simple present; it indicates that you have that opportunity now, which means that you will, if you seize the opportunity, be holding the conference in the future.
The second sentence is in the present perfect; it indicates that the opportunity took place at some point in the past, meaning that the conference also took place in the past.
When using the present perfect, there is a clear grammatical implication that the action spoken of has been completed. The opportunity is not completed until the conference has taken place.
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As KCH suggests, "I have been given the opportunity.." is also a present perfect construction. Would this still imply that the conference has taken place?– Kinzle BCommented Apr 29, 2014 at 13:40
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No. The present perfect indicates the completion of the action of the verb. In "have had," the verb is "to have," and the action of "having" is completed when you no longer have the opportunity (because the conference is over). In "have been given," the verb is "to give," and the action of the "giving" is completed when you receive the opportunity; in that case, the implication is that the conference is probably still in the future.– chapkaCommented Apr 29, 2014 at 13:47