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  1. I have applied for leave of absence for today.

  2. I have applied for leave of absence today.

I think there is some difference in meaning between the two sentences.

I think the sentence 1 means specifically that I applied for leave of absence for oneday that is today.

The second sentence means I have applied for leave of absence today. It does not specify whether the leave of absence is for today or for some more days.

I would like to know whether I am correct or wrong.

I herewith attach the link which I have searched.

https://textranch.com/79386/i-have-applied-for-leave/or/i-have-applied-leave/

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-2

You are right!

I have applied for a casual leave today

Here, it means that today is the day of 'application.'

Nevertheless,

I have applied for a casual leave for the next Monday

...would mean that you are not coming on Monday.

It'll be a little ambiguous though fun if you are applying for leave (for Monday) today!

I have applied for a casual leave for the next Monday, today!

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  • 1
    .is The article a before leave is necessary? – successive suspension Sep 12 at 6:57
  • Of course, it's a countable noun in this context. – Maulik V♦ Sep 12 at 7:06
  • 'A casual leave day' but 'casual leave' for an unspeficied amount. – Smock Sep 13 at 12:15
  • @Smock in the given context, putting day is redundant! So, I am taking a leave works. You don't need to add a 'day.' – Maulik V♦ Sep 14 at 13:27
  • Maybe it's just me being a native BrE speaker, but we would never just say 'taking a leave' without it being 'a leave (sth)'. For us it's 'taking leave / taking casual leave / taking annual leave'. We only add the a when it's a leave (something): 'taking a leave day / taking a casual leave day / taking a leave of absence' – Smock Sep 16 at 9:05

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