• Employed at previous places, I now do this.

  • Having been employed at previous places, I now do this.

Do both mean exactly the same?


Normally, the difference between two such sentences would be as follows:

Being employed at previous various places, I now do this.

This puts the sentence into the present tense. It's not the case that you used to be employed somewhere, but you still are employed somewhere.

It's not the use of employed that determines the tense, but the verb that goes in front of it. When using it in the present tense, that verb can be omitted and understood to be a present-tense verb:

(Being) Employed as president, she had access to the nuclear codes.

Here, either with being or without it (where most people will assume its existence), the present tense is understood.

? Employed at previous places, I now do this.

With careful reading, the use of the word previous establishes the sentence as talking about something that happened in the past.

As such, it's actually having been that would be assumed to exist in front of employed, but which has been omitted:

Having been employed at previous places, I now do this.

So, yes. The two sentences in the question essentially mean the same thing.

However, the first sentence is not natural. The omission of a verb in front is almost always the omission of a present-tense verb, making the sentence talk about something currently happening.

On reading just employed at, the reader will assume that it's describing something that's current. But upon encountering previous, there is a moment of jarring confusion, followed by a reinterpretation of what's being said and the mental changing of an assumed present-tense verb to a past-tense verb.

In short, for the past tense, you really do want to explicitly include having been.

The result of the two sentences in the question is the same, but in practice the first sentence is unidiomatic.

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