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I encountered the sentence "I've seen all Tarantino's films" in a book I was reading. I found the writing odd since I would normally write it as "I've seen all of Tarantino's films" (because I've heard people say it this way). I looked into the different use of "all/all of" but only undertood explainations for when you use pronouns. Can anyone explain if the use is correct, incorrect, or optional and why?

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Generally speaking, we always use all of when it's followed by a pronoun:

Yes, I've seen all of them
I've seen all of his books
Can you fit all of us in your car?

The of is optional when it's followed by a noun, for example

I want all [of] the news about your wedding
The dog ate all [of] the food

For a small number of the words, it is never used:

I waited all day for him

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  • Nothing wrong, in my opinion, with JavaLatte's answer, which is what I would have given. – Michael Harvey Sep 15 '19 at 7:40
  • So what is it for Tarantino's films? Tarantino's isn't a pronoun. – stackzebra Sep 15 '19 at 12:53
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    @stackzebra: If it's not followed by a pronoun, the of is optional. – JavaLatte Sep 15 '19 at 13:19

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