I encountered the sentence "I've seen all Tarantino's films" in a book I was reading. I found the writing odd since I would normally write it as "I've seen all of Tarantino's films" (because I've heard people say it this way). I looked into the different use of "all/all of" but only undertood explainations for when you use pronouns. Can anyone explain if the use is correct, incorrect, or optional and why?


Generally speaking, we always use all of when it's followed by a pronoun:

Yes, I've seen all of them
I've seen all of his books
Can you fit all of us in your car?

The of is optional when it's followed by a noun, for example

I want all [of] the news about your wedding
The dog ate all [of] the food

For a small number of the words, it is never used:

I waited all day for him

  • Nothing wrong, in my opinion, with JavaLatte's answer, which is what I would have given. Sep 15 '19 at 7:40
  • So what is it for Tarantino's films? Tarantino's isn't a pronoun.
    – stackzebra
    Sep 15 '19 at 12:53
  • 1
    @stackzebra: If it's not followed by a pronoun, the of is optional.
    – JavaLatte
    Sep 15 '19 at 13:19

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