He made me laugh(active)

I was made to laugh by him(passive voice)

In the active voice made is followed by personal object and bare infinitive.

But in the passive voice made is followed by to infinitive.

What is the reason for the use of the bare infinitive and to infinitive in different voice?

I know that the verb make is followed by bare infinitive.

What is the rule applied here?

If we use bare infinitive in the pasive voice, does the sentence become wrong?

No grammar book has given any explanation about this

  • It's a rule of grammar that "make" takes a bare infinitival complement, while in the passive it takes a to infinitival. I don't know why this is the case; I suppose it's just the way the language has evolved.
    – BillJ
    Sep 27, 2019 at 16:53
  • 2
    What BillJ said. Congratulations! You've found an inconsistency in English,. I observe, though, that it wasn't always inconsistent: in Early Modern English, make could take a "to" infinitive in the active - Psalm 23 in the King James Version (1611) contains "He maketh me to lie down in green pastures". This construction is now obsolete, though.
    – Colin Fine
    Sep 27, 2019 at 18:31


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