Could you use to in this sense?- "Property 'to' men" or does it have to be "Property 'of' men"

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    Depends on the context. Consider this: "The tyrant gave all his property to the men in the family; the women were left penniless." You can use "to" when you are talking about transferring property. You use "of" when you are saying the property belongs to someone. – AIQ Oct 23 '19 at 0:09

The property belongs to David.

The property of David has been donated to an orphanage

The property of John has been increasing by leaps and bounds

The first sentence means David owns the property.

The second sentence means David's property has been donated.

Third sentence means John's property is increasing.

You can use to or of based on the context.

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