I'm self-studying English and in an exercise I'm asked to correct the errors in perfect tense of a series of sentences. One of them is the following
Supposing they would have got married, wouldn't the day have come when they got bored with each other?
The solution is:
Supposing they had got married, wouldn't the day have come when they got bored with each other?
I have two questions about this.
- Does "they had gotten married" work in the first part? Assume I'm trying to fix it by using American English.
- I'm confused by the second part, specifically "got bored". I feel like "when they would have gotten bored" segues much more naturally from "wouldn't the day have come" than "when they got bored". Do both versions work? Do they say the same thing?
I don't really know grammar. I speak correctly for the most part, but I don't know the rules of grammar explicitly, nor the technical terminology, so please try to adjust your answers as much as possible.