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"First, the Handlins cannot adequately demonstrate that the White servant's position was improving during and after the 1660's; several acts of the Maryland and Virginia legislatures indicate otherwise."

Does this mean that, in reality, the position of White servants was not improving?

Source: The first mention of slavery in the statutes of the English

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Does this mean that, in reality, the position of White servants was not improving?

That is right.

First, the Handlins cannot adequately demonstrate that the White servant's position was improving during and after the 1660's...

This says that the Handlins can't prove that the White servant's position was improving.

... several acts of the Maryland and Virginia legislatures indicate otherwise."

This says that the acts of the Maryland and Virginia legislatures are proof (or that they provide proofs) that the White servant's position was not improving (or was getting worse - depending on the context).

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  • Why do you spell 'White' with a capital W? Nov 3, 2019 at 22:30
  • @MichaelHarvey Well, I basically just kept it they way OP had it in their question. Sorry I did not mean to offend anyone. I just checked the original source material - it is capitalized there, I don't know why though.
    – AIQ
    Nov 3, 2019 at 22:34
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    I just learned that most journalism-related style guides, like those of the Associated Press and New York Times, call for putting both “white” and “black” in all lowercase letters. Others, like The Chicago Manual of Style, allow capitalisation if an author or publication prefers to do so. To British eyes, capitalising black and white looks strange. Nov 3, 2019 at 22:43

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