Do we always use "more" to compare two things?
Among the various and conflicting interpretations of Aristophanes’ works, there is a general admiration for the poet’s seemingly boundless imaginative power and his habit of allowing the creative human spirit to triumph over all constraints of reality. Critics and scholars across the centuries have equated Aristophanes with the best of the Old Comedy, ignoring other representatives of this particular art, such as Cratinus or Eupolis, partly because only Aristophanes’ comedies have survived in complete form. Aristophanes’ fame eventually waned after his death, but he quickly became central to the Western literary canon. Among the early authors who wrote commentaries on Aristophanes were Photius, the erudite patriarch of Constantinople, and John Tzetzes, the noted encyclopedist. Plato’s attitude toward the comic poet was more ambivalent, but this was probably because of Aristophanes’ devastating portrayal of Socrates in The Clouds.
Source: GALE CONTEXTUAL ENCYCLOPEDIA OF WORLD LITERATURE
Does this context compare Plato with other people who criticize Aristophans? Or does "more" here just come to emphasis and means very?
Which paraphrase is better?
- 1: Plato’s attitude toward the comic poet was more ambivalent than other.
or
- 2: Plato’s attitude toward the comic poet was very ambivalent. ??
Source: GALE CONTEXTUAL ENCYCLOPEDIA OF WORLD LITERATURE