Is the verb
eat correct or should it be
I found a sentence similar to this:
He makes a student that does not like milk eat a cake with milk
I am not sure if this is a grammatical mistake or the sentence is correct?
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The subcategorisation frame for make (in this sense) is:
[subject] makes [object] [infinitive clause]
The [infinitive clause] contains a verb in the infinitive (or base) form. Hence 'eat' rather than 'eats', or 'eating', or 'ate', or 'eaten', or 'to eat'.
Edit: I'll add that there is no reason for this, or any way you could work it out by logic: it just happens to be a fact about present day English.
Early Modern English allowed a to- infinitive clause after make, but current English doesn't.
Also, compel (with almost identical meaning to make in this sense), requires a to- infinitive clause, but not a bare infinitive clause: He compels a student that does not like milk to eat a cake with milk. The 'to' is required there.
Subcategorisation frames just need to be learnt along with meaning and spelling.