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I am confused between these two options:

  1. Even an intelligent man is considered fool to a clever man.

  2. Even an intelligent man is considered fool by a clever man.

Which one is right, "to" or "by"? Why?

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    You'll need either an adjective ("foolish") or the indefinite article with the noun ("a fool"). Hend (below) is correct. The agent in sentences with passive voice verbs appears as the object of a prepositional phrase with preposition by.
    – user105719
    Dec 19, 2019 at 9:25

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To me, it seems more natural to say " to a clever man" but I believe that "by" is the grammatically correct one. it's a passive sentence so we'll use By.

https://www.crownacademyenglish.com/preposition-by-meaning-use/

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