None of my friends ever come to see me.

None of these appeal to me.

But none of them owns the landscape.

In this phrase "none of + plural noun", why can the predicate use both singular form and plural form?

  • I think the last one should be "But none of them own the landscape.". – user3169 May 14 '14 at 6:51

Very good question.

It can take both singular and plural form. OALD defines it -

none - not one (is singular) of a group of people or things; not any (could be plural) - any can be used with plural [any suggestions?]

As exactly mentioned in examples there...

None of these pens works/work
We have three sons but none of them lives/live nearby

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