I read this in Word by Word by Kory Stamper:
Maybe, she offered, the usage note about the word being a generalized term of abuse was meant to cover both the non-“whore” sense of “bitch” when used as a slur against women and the “weak, ineffectual” sense of “bitch” when used as a slur against men. She moved her wineglass from one hand to the other. “A usage note could take care of both.”
“Only if it’s its own sense,” I said. “This usage note is attached to the ‘malicious, spiteful, or overbearing woman’ sense.”
“So it can’t be in reference to men.”
“Or just…women in general. Like women who don’t respond to assholes who catcall them on the street.”
“Or women who don’t play into hyper-feminized stereotypes.”
“You know, ‘bitches get shit done,’ that sort of use. Though,” I said, “I suppose that’s really a reclamation of the slur. Which means—”
“Oy,” she groaned, and took a very large gulp of wine.
First let me provide you the context here, two lexicographers are discussing about an entry in the dictionary, "bitch". I can't really figure out who is saying what and am unable to get to the gist because of this ambiguity. Is a woman "who doesn't respond to assholes who catcall them on the street" not a "malicious, spiteful, or overbearing woman"? Another thing that I can't get is the implication of "which means" part of the conversation. Can someone help me in breaking it down?