No, at least no more in English than in any other language.
If he won the lottery, he would buy a new car.
This speaks of a possible future event (winning the lottery) and a claimed consequence (buying a new car). It doesn't describe the past. We can't logically infer anything from the fact that he has, or hasn't bought a new car.
If you gave me a slice of cake, I would eat it.
I'm not currently eating cake, but I can't infer that you have never given me cake in the past.
Now practically we can use general knowledge of human behaviour and make educated guesses:
The second sentence talks about past actions ("had gone" and "would have") So if we assume the whole sentence is true, then we can deduce that "He came home early, so he didn't go to the event". However there is no special fact of English grammar being applied here. All languages can make similar statements, and all natural languages unsuitable for formal logical proofs.