When talking about a theoretical situation in the past - in the present case this sentence: "It is because those people (theoretical) would not have had been (action) - is it correct to use "have had been"?

1 Answer 1


There may be some dialects that use this, but it's not grammatical in any standard English that I am aware of.

Auxiliary have can be followed by the past participle of the main verb:

They have seen him.

They have had dinner.

or by been (ppt of "be") for continuous or passive:

They have been seeing him.

The have been seen by him.

but not by any other auxiliary

  • Then what tense should I use? "Would not had been"?
    – folo polo
    Commented Feb 4, 2020 at 17:01
  • @folopolo: that's not grammatical. Modals such as would must be followed by the base form of the next verb, even if it is an auxiliary. would not have been.
    – Colin Fine
    Commented Feb 4, 2020 at 17:23

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .