1.He hasn't enough money to attend the concert.

2.He does not have enough money to attend the concert.

I've found the second one in my text book. And I am confuse that does the first one is correct with the same meaning?


The first sentence is technically grammatical, but it is archaic and not very idiomatic in Present-Day English, at least in the US. The second sentence is more common and natural. Both sentences have the same meaning.

  • 1
    The first is somewhat more common in British dialects, but the "doesn't have" is still more common and natural.
    – James K
    Feb 9 '20 at 6:55

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