May I know are the following two sentences grammatical and idiomatic?
I just went to Venice last September
I've just gone to Venice last September
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I just went to Venice last September. (STANDARD ENGLISH)
The sentence above is grammatical. The speaker visited Venice in September, and has since returned home. In this instance, the adverb just could signify "only", "simply", or "very recently".
I've just gone to Venice last September (NON-STANDARD)
The sentence above is non-standard English; clearly “last September” is firmly rooted in the past, and in English the simple past tense is preferred. A native speaker in a similar situation would most likely say
- I went to Venice last September (YES)
“last September" is equivalent to [number]+[days/weeks/months]+ ago, e.g.
- I visited Venice five months ago (YES)
Sentences 1 and 2 are grammatical and in standard English, exactly the type of English which examiners expect students and candidates to produce in speech and in writing.
- "I've just gone to Venice" (YES)
Sentence 3 is written in the PRESENT PERFECT, and it is grammatical. It suggests that the action of going to a place occurred very recently in the past, there is no need to add a specific time reference as the adverb "just" confirms when the action happened.
- ‘I've just seen the local paper’
Evidently, the speaker is currently in Venice. If a similar statement were made months later, and the speaker was still in Venice, then it would be illogical to insist that the act of arrival is persistently recent. The act of going has finished, the speaker is no longer going they are staying, therefore, it is more natural (and logical) to say:
“I've been in Venice since September.” (YES)
“I've been in Venice for five months.” (YES)
For further reference, see StoneyB's Canonical Post #2: What is the perfect, and how should I use it? and his answer here: 3. What does the perfect mean? (part 2)
Both are grammatical and idiomatic, what you’re asking is a common question: What is the difference between have gone and went?
Quite simply, the difference is to do with semantics:
I have (just) gone to Venice last September - (one direction) - it suggests that a person has gone to Venice but has not returned yet to where they originally departed from.
I (just) went to Venice last September - (both directions) - it suggests that a person has been to Venice and has returned to where they originally departed from.
The OED’s earliest citation for been to in the sense ‘to have gone to the appropriate place in order to do something (with the implication that one has returned, or begun to do so)’ is dated 1482. The earliest citation for gone to in the sense ‘[having moved, taken one's way, passed, or proceeded] to or towards a place, into the presence of a person, or in a specified direction’ is dated a little over a hundred years later.
I don’t think there’s anything mysterious about the use of the two different verbs to mean two different things. Gone to does not entail come back, but been to does. Go suggests movement, while be suggests stasis. - Barrie England
Someone has said no. 2 is unacceptable because “have gone” and “last September” conflict - they do not, because as seen above “have gone” has a continuous function as opposed to “went” a completed action. Therefore, I have just gone to Venice last September, suggest the person went to Venice but hasn’t returned yet in the present. “have gone” does not vitiate “last September” because no reference to the present need be made (it is not a completed action). I will demonstrate this continuous action in another sentence:
I go to X High School. I have gone to X High School since I was fifteen years old.
So you could have:
I have just gone to Venice (since) last September
or, keep it the same
I have just gone to Venice last September [Context-dependent]*
[*] If it's October (i.e the date of going to Venice and the statement at which the above is written or said is within the present realm), the present perfect must cover time up to the present date in October. - @user105719