For instance,
"Eating apples without washing"
Which is a gerund clause, can also function as a non-finite clause, since it has a non-finite verb and its object?
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1The category of 'non-finite clauses' consists of gerund-participials, infinitivals and past-participials. Whether or not the non-finite clause contains an object is irrelevant.– BillJCommented Mar 16, 2020 at 8:04
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2 Answers
By definition, it is a non-finite clause, since it contains a verb with no tense and an object. There are different types of non-finite clauses:
finite and non-finite clauses
answered Mar 15, 2020 at 19:54
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I integrated a comment from BillJ since he is saying the same thing– James KCommented Jan 7, 2022 at 13:24
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It's not quite the same thing. As far as I understand, a gerund by itself doesn't constitute a clause. Commented Jan 9, 2022 at 18:10
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For example, 1. Thinking is the best way to travel. 2. Thinking hard is the best way to travel. 3. Thinking about other places is the best way to travel. To me, only 3, with an object, is clearly a clause. What do you think? Commented Jan 9, 2022 at 18:19
The category of 'non-finite clauses' consists of gerund-participials, infinitivals and past-participials. Whether or not the non-finite clause contains an object is irrelevant.