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The sentence below is an example for the word sheeple offered by BBC Learning English:

My brother's one of those sheeple who has to follow the latest fashions.

I suppose who refers to one so it is followed by a singular verb (has). Yet I've been taught that relative pronouns must come right after antecedents so why doesn't who refer to sheeple? Then it would become:

My brother's one of those sheeple who have to follow the latest fashions.

Is the second sentence correct? If so, what's the difference between the two? Are there any rules that relative pronouns must stand right after antecedents?

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You are right that your sentence is grammatically correct: the article One of Those Grammatical Errors explains why, and describes how difficult it is to convince other people of this.

This NGram graph shows that the singular form of the verb was never used in writing before about 1940, but since then the number of occurrences is rising steadily. You can try the search with other verbs: for the majority of verbs, you will see the same trend. Two noticeable exceptions are want, need, and have is a lot lower than most verbs.

Language changes, and probably before long the singular form will dominate- because it sounds right, rather than because it follows the rules.

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    Well, I cannot find the article so I have no basis to criticize it, but the premise that a relative pronoun must immediately follow its referent strikes me as a recommendation for clear writing rather than a rule of English grammar. It seems to me that the number of the verb should agree with the number of the referent. In this case, that logic suggests that the referent is “brother.” Sep 18, 2022 at 23:18
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I suppose who refers to one so it is followed by a singular verb (has). Yet I've been taught that relative pronouns must come right after antecedents so why doesn't who refer to sheeple?

It does come right after the antecedent: the antecedent is "one of the sheeple." The antecedent need not be a single word. So in this case "has" is correct.

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