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The sentence below is an example for the word sheeple offered by BBC Learning English:

My brother's one of those sheeple who has to follow the latest fashions.

I suppose who refers to one so it is followed by a singular verb (has). Yet I've been taught that relative pronouns must come right after antecedents so why doesn't who refer to sheeple? Then it would become:

My brother's one of those sheeple who have to follow the latest fashions.

Is the second sentence correct? If so, what's the difference between the two? Are there any rules that relative pronouns must stand right after antecedents?

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You are right that your sentence is grammatically correct: this article explains why, and describes how difficult it is to convince other people of this.

This NGram graph shows that the singular form of the verb was never used in writing before about 1940, but since then the number of occurrences is rising steadily. You can try the search with other verbs: for the majority of verbs, you will see the same trend. Two noticeable exceptions are want, need, and have is a lot lower than most verbs.

Language changes, and probably before long the singular form will dominate- because it sounds right, rather than because it follows the rules.

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