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I know how conditional if clause sentences work. But I found situation where someone use "would had" in sentence which looks like III conditional at first sight.
"If I'd had my phone with me, I'd have texted you to say where I was."
Is it an exception? Can someone explain me why?
This is not a case of "would had" (which is never correct). In the first part of the sentence, the contraction "I'd" is not short for "I would", but rather it is actually short for "I had", so it means:
If I had had my phone with me, I would have texted you to say where I was.
Here, "had had" is the past perfect of "to have". The past perfect tense is used for counterfactual states or actions that are in the past.
