Doing some tasks in the textbook I stumbled across one sentence. Here is a small dialog.
Do you have a headache ?
Yes, I've had a headache all morning.
Why do we use the present perfect tense here, but not the pres. perf. continuous ?
My logic is that we have an indicator for a period of time (
all morning) and
have is a part of the set phrase (
have a headache), which is the reason why
have can be used in continuous context.
But still, we use the present perfect tense. Although
I've been having a headache all morning sounds weird for me.
Where am I wrong?