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The software takes 2 years to develop, the investors might have been gone by the then.

Is the above sentence grammatically correct?

Can "might have been" be used as future perfect tense instead of past conditional?

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  • Welcome to English Language Learners! A few tips for posting your next question: 1) To separate the lines, push space bar twice. 2) First words of sentences need capital letters. 3) Put no space before the question mark. Following these tips should make your post look more professional. – Sarah Bowman Apr 15 '20 at 23:48
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    Your sentence is not grammatically correct but I'm not sure how to correct it because I don't know what is happening. It seems like there is some contingency, like someone wants to talk with the investors before they leave, maybe after the software is developed. Can you tell us more about what is going on? For example: Why does it matter that the investors will be gone by the time the software is developed? More details could help get better answers. Thank you. – Sarah Bowman Apr 16 '20 at 0:42
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The software takes 2 years to develop; the investors might be gone by then.

OR

The software takes 2 years to develop, so the investors might not be interested in waiting that long.

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  • Thanks for your answer, but why is it correct? Explain with reference to rules of grammar. Also, why is the OP’s example not correct? Explain. – Fivesideddice Apr 16 '20 at 3:32

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