The software takes 2 years to develop, the investors might have been gone by the then.

Is the above sentence grammatically correct?

Can "might have been" be used as future perfect tense instead of past conditional?

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    Your sentence is not grammatically correct but I'm not sure how to correct it because I don't know what is happening. It seems like there is some contingency, like someone wants to talk with the investors before they leave, maybe after the software is developed. Can you tell us more about what is going on? For example: Why does it matter that the investors will be gone by the time the software is developed? More details could help get better answers. Thank you. – Sarah Bowman Apr 16 '20 at 0:42

The software takes 2 years to develop; the investors might be gone by then.


The software takes 2 years to develop, so the investors might not be interested in waiting that long.

  • Thanks for your answer, but why is it correct? Explain with reference to rules of grammar. Also, why is the OP’s example not correct? Explain. – Fivesideddice Apr 16 '20 at 3:32

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